17 Dec
2003
17 Dec
'03
11:17 p.m.
David Van Wie writes:
It just moves the prior art date from the date of invention to the date of filing the patent application.
.pm writes:
Can you explain that? It doesn't make much sense...
I'll ask a more specific question: What happens if the chronology goes like this ? (0) Alice invents a snaffleblort. (1) Bob invents a snaffleblort. (2) Bob files for a patent on a snaffleblort.
From what you said, it would appear that Alice's prior art won't count when it comes to considering the validity of Bob's patent claim. Is that correct ?
-Futplex <futplex@pseudonym.com>