On Tuesday, September 17, 2019, 08:19:27 PM PDT, Punk wrote: On Wed, 18 Sep 2019 03:00:58 +0000 (UTC) jim bell <[1]jdb10987@yahoo.com> wrote: >> "Surplus value" is a phony, fictitious concept [2]https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Surplus_value that originated in the mid-1800's, when it was individual physical labor which "made" most products. > wow - cosmic level of economic ignorance on display. Here, I notice that while you disagree with what I said, you made that clear, nevertheless you didn't disprove what I said, or even provide a cogent argument. >> Then came the Industrial Revolution, when products began to be made mostly, and eventually almost completely, by machines (and later, even robots). > everything is made by 'labor' - oh wait, you think that machines magically create and operate themselves?) a "made by (human) labor" doesn't QUANTIFY it, as a proportion of the total value. Today, humans do very little 'labor' in making modern products. What you (and others who push the "surplus value" nonsense) are trying to come to a quantitative conclusion (the workers are entitled to a large fraction of the 'surplus value' regardless of the quantity of their input) without any sort of quantitative analysis. >> "Workers" want to think they they 'created' the products that the machines and robots actually created. > dude, 'workers' created the machines and robots. Are you suggesting that 'the workers' who made the machine are somehow entitled to a high proportion of the 'value' represented by the products the machine is producing? Rather than merely being compensated for their time and effort? >> They want what they call "profit", which is actually mostly the responsibility of hundreds of machines. > .... this was would be hilarious except for the fact that it's pathetic. Again, you clearly DISAGREE with what I said, but you've said nothing to DISPROVE it, no even provide a credible argument why you think I'm wrong. Jim Bell References 1. mailto:jdb10987@yahoo.com 2. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Surplus_value%A0%A0