"lossless" optical waveguide

[jim bell]

    On Sunday, September 8, 2019, 01:48:17 PM PDT, jim bell <jdb10987 at yahoo.com> wrote:  

On Sun, Sep 8, 2019 at 1:39 PM, Punk<punks at tfwno.gf> wrote:On Sun, 8 Sep 2019 18:35:34 +0000 (UTC)
jim bell <jdb10987 at yahoo.com> wrote:


> I believe I've solved that problem. 

    Did you make any experiments, have any real proof for your claim or is it just theoretical speculation? 

>So far theoretical speculation only.  Backed by granted patents.


 
I should mention that I am not implying that a granted patent is somehow a guarantee an invention is "new, useful, and unobvious of one skilled in the subject of the invention", the general three requirements for patentability.   If a patented invention does not "work", then it isn't "useful", and the patent can be challenged on that basis.  But if it doesn't work, it becomes functionally irrelevant anyway.  The US Patent Office doesn't have the time to verify that inventions 'work'.
In order to evaluate this as a proposed idea, a physicist would consider:
1.  The loss of manufactured optical waveguides did indeed hit an unexplained 'floor' in the early 1980s, about 0.16 db/kilometers of loss.2.  The manufacturers and users of such fibers have had a very powerful motivation to figure out how to lower their loss to well below 0.16 db/kilometers, for nearly 40 years.3.   Nothing has yet been found, or it would have been employed.4.   Photons do indeed possess an oscillating magnetic field.5.   A nucleus of an isotope with 'spin' does indeed behave as magnetic dipole.6.   Such a nucleus should be mechanically affected by the passage of light.7.   Energy should be transferred from that light to the nucleus, and thus the atom, as the light passes.8.   Removing most or all atoms with an electromagnetic 'spin' should remove this loss mechanism, in proportion to the amount of such isotopes remaining.
Do you have any other ideas as to how that loss is manifested?    







 
  
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