Secrets, lies and Snowden's email: why I was forced to shut down Lavabit

[Juan]

On Tue, 20 May 2014 18:47:28 -0700 (PDT)
jim bell <jamesdbell9 at yahoo.com> wrote:

> 
> Myself, I feel that no court can legitimately have any legal
> authority to order anyone to not speak about a legal proceeding.


	By definition, or by their own nature, or both, state courts
	are free to do whatever they please. I thought you might be
	familiar with the concept...? 

	Legitimacy? Whatever the government does is 'legitimate'
	because they say so.


>  It's easy to explain why:  The First Amendment, and the well-known
> prohibition against prior restraint, etc.  
> But the reality is that
> courts have developed the idea that "order" the "sealing" of
> documents.  I don't have an argument with an idea that a court can
> order an employee of government to not speak, precisely because he IS
> a government employee.  But Mr. Levison wasn't, and isn't a
> government employee. Would the procedure I described above 'get
> around' the law? Jim Bell