On Tue, 20 May 2014 18:47:28 -0700 (PDT) jim bell <jamesdbell9@yahoo.com> wrote:
Myself, I feel that no court can legitimately have any legal authority to order anyone to not speak about a legal proceeding.
By definition, or by their own nature, or both, state courts are free to do whatever they please. I thought you might be familiar with the concept...? Legitimacy? Whatever the government does is 'legitimate' because they say so.
It's easy to explain why: The First Amendment, and the well-known prohibition against prior restraint, etc. But the reality is that courts have developed the idea that "order" the "sealing" of documents. I don't have an argument with an idea that a court can order an employee of government to not speak, precisely because he IS a government employee. But Mr. Levison wasn't, and isn't a government employee. Would the procedure I described above 'get around' the law? Jim Bell