Evidently this explanation creates only more problems than it solves. Moreover, the 

entire tale is absolutely without foundation. No scriptural evidence or evidence based on the 

traditions of the Holy Prophet (may peace and blessings of Allah be on him) is ever presented 

to support this bizarre claim which simply adds more conjectural confusion. 

Tt is as if this explanation of the verse dawned only upon the medieval scholars while 

the Messenger of God, peace be upon him, remained himself completely unaware of it. 

As to the second question the weakness of the claim is apparent from the wording of 

the Holy Qur'iin. The word rafa 'a (;J;) means elevated. Whenever Allah elevates a person the 

elevation always refers to the status of the person, never to his body. In fact it is impossible to 

translate this verse in any way other than the said meaning i.e., the elevation of spiritual 

station. 

The verse declares that Allah elevated Jesus to Himself. Evidently no point in space 

of Heaven is mentioned lo which Allah raised him. He raised him lo Himself while He was 

present there where Jesus was. No place in Heaven or earth is empty of Allah's presence. So 

when someone is said lo be raised lo Him, a bodily movement is impossible and inconceivable. 

According to Ahmadiyya understanding of this verse, the connotation of 'on the contrary' 

refers to the Jewish claim of the accursed death of Jesus. Obviously the opposite of curse is 

nearness to God. 

,:, 160. Note: This verse has been the subject of controversy regarding its real import. Some 

scholars believe that it refers to a remote future in relation to the time of crucifixion indicating 

that all Jews without exception will one day have faith in Jesus Christ and accept him as a true 

Prophet of God. They claim that it is also mentioned in this verse that this miracle would take 

place in the lifetime of Jesus Christ. This they infer from the words qahla mautihi (H~ µ) 

which means before his death. 

As the Jews have not yet accepted him, therefore, according to such scholars Jesus 

must be still alive. 

Another commonly held view is that the expression 'before his death' refers to every 

member of the Jewish faith of the time of Jesus Christ. In this case this would mean that every 

Jew would believe in Jesus Christ before his death-a claim which can only be verified by 

God. 

Unfortunately many problems and difficulties stand in the way of accepting these 

propositions in toto. 

We propose a completely different and new solution to the problem. The verse under 

study is translated as 'There is no one among the people of the Book but will certainly believe 

in him before his death." 

The word in italics i.e., 'one' is not literally mentioned in the verse but is only implied. 

If it were mentioned the verse would mean as follows: 

wain afiadimmin ahlilkitiibi -,4]1 -J-k' 0 ~I""'