Sorry. I was unclear. I was comparing U.S. citizens with citizens of another country who are living in that country.
If a U.S. citizen living in the U.S. is running an ISP, I would argue from principle that he has a right to distribute writings (I like Jeanne's bookstore analogy) penned by citizens of another country. But would the goverment under existing law have a right to force
On Tue, 18 Nov 1997, Declan McCullagh wrote: the publisher to disclose the real identity of the one who wrote the inflamatory message to a foreign goverment? Does the application of bilateral treaties the United States has with other countries require dual criminality i.e. child pornography, piracy, fraud etc? Most speech that would be considered hate speech in Europe would not meet the prerequirement of dual criminality.